Mat Bowles

Interesting article, thank you. However, the writer does acknowledge that Alfred was using a case we don't have today, so it's at best a bit misleading to say 'fine for Alfred the Great'! He spoke a different language [Old English; it is emphatically NOT the same language as Modern English], so we can't really use 9th century evidence to justify or deny modern usages. Baker, on the other hand, while an individual with no particular authority (or indeed, desire to impose any, judging by that quote), is at least speaking our language, being post-1550. Several centuries of consistent use gives the rule enough validity IMO, even if it was not mandated by God some time before England existed, which some people seem to think is the origin of all English grammar and therefore it may never be challenged as It Be The Will Of Godde, or something.